The name Spain is a Latin name Hispania. This name was given by the Romans to the complete Iberian Peninsula.
How did Spain get its name?
It is believed about the name of country Spain that it traces back to Latin Name. The name which was used by Romans was Hispania. It is because that after a long time the Iberian Peninsula became a region of the Roman Empire known as Hispania, that's why they used to call this region as Hispania. The history of this word is still confusing but most of the historians believed that it might be derived from the word Hispalis which means seville. Hispalis is further derived from Heloopolis which means the city of sun. It might be Phoenician and the name of Spain is also Phoenician which means "Land of rabbits". That is why, Spain name was derived from Hispania name.
I have read it in our Hungarian Chronicle called "Chronicon pictum" prepared in AD 1358 in Latin language that Hispania received its name after our Hungarian word "spán". In AD 451 before the battle at the Catalaunian plains, Attila the Hun (or Hungarian King, which is the same) King divided its army, meaning that 1/3 of the complete army he sent to Seville with selected military captains called "spán"s (which is a military rank) in Hungarian language against the mighty Sultan called Miramammona residing there, who fled to Morocco after being informed of the incoming army.
After the division of Attila's Army, Aetius the leader of the roman army with ten western Kings unexpectedly for the Huns forced the battle at the Catalaunian plains.
This other part of the Hun army learned of the battle at the Catalaunian plains only long after the battle was over, so could not join Attila. These military captains called "spán"s in Hungarian language and the rest of the army became afraid of the fury of Attila and chose to remain and settle down in Catalunia and not to return to Pannonia. The land where they settled down/ruled later was called Hispania after their name/rank.
Hispania is where the span rules, just like the king in the kingdom or sheriff in the shire, etc. Later this word was used for all people of Hispania and surely the word Spain is derived from it.
What I am saying here is not contrary to the roman/latin origin as well, as the core "span" is put in the latin form of Hi"span"ia, but the core word has a clear meaning in Hungarian and connection to our people as explained above, and a very similar meaning even in todays Hungarian. I must add that Hungarian language is not latin based.
You can prove our codex completely wrong if you can quote from any original and certified document created before Attila's campaign that already refers to this region as "Hispania" or uses this word explicitly.
I am very sceptic to the theories written here and elsewhere :), you are trying to explain what you cannot, or speculate on the origin :), e.g. That it originates from "Hispalis", the beginning of this word is with "H", but we know that "H" has no value, just look at the word Hungarus which means Hungarian, Ungarro in Spanish, Ungar in German, Hongrois in French, some have "H" in it some do not, but they all mean the same. So just because it starts with "H" does not help here. Look at ending "ia" compared with "(l)is" which is different, but the word is same length, so how can Hispalis be the source if same length? Lets look at core, "span" vs "spal", its different, "spa" looks the same in both, but does not have a meaning in Hungarian and I bet it does not in Latin. Furthermore, does the core or any core have a meaning in Hispalis? It does not, that is why it has to be further artificially originated from something that has a meaning and that is another city: Heliopolis, "city of the sun". But where is the true connection between the different 3 words?, somebody tell me. Hispalis and Heliopolis are city names, that is very important but because Hispania is not. I bet there was never a city that was called like that at that time.
Now let's look at the ending "IA" in Hispania, it is the same as in Britannia, Germania, Gallia, Thrakia, etc., has no differentiating value again (like we saw at the letter "H"), so we can leave that out as well, what remain of these words is Briton, German, Gall, Thrak, etc. All these words refer to a people, (and not to a city!) where we can ask the question that they answer to. And that question is: What kind of people are they? They are people, who are Britons, Germans, Galls, Thraks and "Span"s, which meant at that time, they are people who are "captains". Which makes also sense from another perspective, which is that these captains had no right to call this land "Hungaria" as only Kings have the right to found Kingdoms for their people.
Another theory I read that it Comes from Phoenician and means: Land of rabbits :)))))))))))), lol, so fake, why cant you see it? It would mean that: "They are people who are rabbits." I heard that even barely any rabbits live in Spain.., beside being nonsense for a nation to be called as rabbit and still being unproven. In my oppinion the reason being for the existence of theory is that you cant seem to find the meaning of the core "span" in a European language, (altough there is a meaning in Hungarian language before your eyes which is not an Indo-European langauge that is true, but we are in the center of geographical Europe), that is why you look for a language outside Europe, and fabricate an illusionary connection and you people believe it because you dont get better knowledge. If you would be able to find it easily in Hungarian language/history you would not need to look elsewhere, but I bet official intention lies elsewhere.
How come a nation forgets the meaning/origin behind its identification name?
By the way before I forget, Attila won the battle at Catalaunian plains our chronicle above clearly says so ... Official western history nowdays is that the battle was undecided... How could it be undecided? Somebody tell me another battle with such importance turning out undecided. Yes, the battle was bloody, but who stays on the battlegrounds after the battle if not the winner? Attila stayed 2 more days on the grounds, before continuing his successful! Campaign, occupying Toulouse, Reims, all of nowdays France, Flandres etc, etc...
I could go on like this forever...
After the division of Attila's Army, Aetius the leader of the roman army with ten western Kings unexpectedly for the Huns forced the battle at the Catalaunian plains.
This other part of the Hun army learned of the battle at the Catalaunian plains only long after the battle was over, so could not join Attila. These military captains called "spán"s in Hungarian language and the rest of the army became afraid of the fury of Attila and chose to remain and settle down in Catalunia and not to return to Pannonia. The land where they settled down/ruled later was called Hispania after their name/rank.
Hispania is where the span rules, just like the king in the kingdom or sheriff in the shire, etc. Later this word was used for all people of Hispania and surely the word Spain is derived from it.
What I am saying here is not contrary to the roman/latin origin as well, as the core "span" is put in the latin form of Hi"span"ia, but the core word has a clear meaning in Hungarian and connection to our people as explained above, and a very similar meaning even in todays Hungarian. I must add that Hungarian language is not latin based.
You can prove our codex completely wrong if you can quote from any original and certified document created before Attila's campaign that already refers to this region as "Hispania" or uses this word explicitly.
I am very sceptic to the theories written here and elsewhere :), you are trying to explain what you cannot, or speculate on the origin :), e.g. That it originates from "Hispalis", the beginning of this word is with "H", but we know that "H" has no value, just look at the word Hungarus which means Hungarian, Ungarro in Spanish, Ungar in German, Hongrois in French, some have "H" in it some do not, but they all mean the same. So just because it starts with "H" does not help here. Look at ending "ia" compared with "(l)is" which is different, but the word is same length, so how can Hispalis be the source if same length? Lets look at core, "span" vs "spal", its different, "spa" looks the same in both, but does not have a meaning in Hungarian and I bet it does not in Latin. Furthermore, does the core or any core have a meaning in Hispalis? It does not, that is why it has to be further artificially originated from something that has a meaning and that is another city: Heliopolis, "city of the sun". But where is the true connection between the different 3 words?, somebody tell me. Hispalis and Heliopolis are city names, that is very important but because Hispania is not. I bet there was never a city that was called like that at that time.
Now let's look at the ending "IA" in Hispania, it is the same as in Britannia, Germania, Gallia, Thrakia, etc., has no differentiating value again (like we saw at the letter "H"), so we can leave that out as well, what remain of these words is Briton, German, Gall, Thrak, etc. All these words refer to a people, (and not to a city!) where we can ask the question that they answer to. And that question is: What kind of people are they? They are people, who are Britons, Germans, Galls, Thraks and "Span"s, which meant at that time, they are people who are "captains". Which makes also sense from another perspective, which is that these captains had no right to call this land "Hungaria" as only Kings have the right to found Kingdoms for their people.
Another theory I read that it Comes from Phoenician and means: Land of rabbits :)))))))))))), lol, so fake, why cant you see it? It would mean that: "They are people who are rabbits." I heard that even barely any rabbits live in Spain.., beside being nonsense for a nation to be called as rabbit and still being unproven. In my oppinion the reason being for the existence of theory is that you cant seem to find the meaning of the core "span" in a European language, (altough there is a meaning in Hungarian language before your eyes which is not an Indo-European langauge that is true, but we are in the center of geographical Europe), that is why you look for a language outside Europe, and fabricate an illusionary connection and you people believe it because you dont get better knowledge. If you would be able to find it easily in Hungarian language/history you would not need to look elsewhere, but I bet official intention lies elsewhere.
How come a nation forgets the meaning/origin behind its identification name?
By the way before I forget, Attila won the battle at Catalaunian plains our chronicle above clearly says so ... Official western history nowdays is that the battle was undecided... How could it be undecided? Somebody tell me another battle with such importance turning out undecided. Yes, the battle was bloody, but who stays on the battlegrounds after the battle if not the winner? Attila stayed 2 more days on the grounds, before continuing his successful! Campaign, occupying Toulouse, Reims, all of nowdays France, Flandres etc, etc...
I could go on like this forever...
It is belived that the Roman Empire gave spain a latin name. Ha-spire. They then decided it would be better as Spain and changed it but no-one knows for sure.! Belive it or not. :)
The name spain originated from the roman word hispania its because that after a long time the Iberian penninsula became a region of the roman empire, some also say that its phoenician or land of the rabbits.
